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Chris,
Thank you for responding.
What you are saying makes perfect sense if we were to approach the Bible as merely a collection of writings by different authors communicating to different audiences in there own words about what they understood God was teaching them and wanted them to communicate.
But that is NOT what the Bible is because that is NOT what the Bible declares itself to be. The Bible declares itself to be the very Word of God Himself. And that God Himself is the Word. We cannot separate the two. The mechanics of how God assured that the human scribes spoke and penned exactly the events and information, using exactly the phrases and words, in the original languages, that God desired is ultimately God's business. But we can know for a certainty that it is so because the Bible, the Word of God Himself, declares it to be so.
So therefore, when determining how we are to approach and interpret scripture, we MUST look to the Bible itself and ONLY to the Bible and to the ENTIRE Bible to instruct us. That is to define our Hermeneutic. And God has graciously accommodated us in this matter.
No one would dispute that we must use proper grammatical rules of the original languages as a start. But we must understand that the Bible is its own dictionary and its own interpreter because it ultimately has only ONE AUTHOR. God Himself. And God may and does use a word or a phrase in one part of the Bible to indicate how we He may be using it in other parts of the Bible. "Jerusalem" is a good example.
In my previous posts I have tried to point out some of the scriptures where God defines what our Hermeneutic should be.
We must keep in mind that God has given us the Bible, not as a history book, but to present HIS PLAN FOR MANKIND AND HIS CREATION. And to DEMONSTRATE HIS GLORY. To show us our relationship to God. To demonstrate His perfect Justice and unfathomable Mercy in Salvation. In other words. the GOSPEL
I share the above example from Paul to show what the correct understanding of the Bible is & what is the correct hermeneutics & exegesis to be employed. But if you believe that understanding the historical, grammatical, contextual aspect of Scripture is unimportant because that it undermines what God is trying to say, then I cannot accept that. I guess it comes down to how the biblical writers penned their works. I can't accept that they sat there with quill in hand, ink pot at their side, & waited for God to move their fingers according to His Words to them. These men loved their God & trusted Him to assist them bring out God's Message on paper/papyrus, etc, accurately as God directed. Were they devoid of mental acuity or lacking consciousness of the world around them, when they wrote? Did they need to question God, 'why am I writing this when I don't understand why I'm writing this?' What I'm saying, is that they were in full possession of their faculties & as they felt led to write (even the epistles that Paul wrote from prison), the Spirit of God filled their minds to pen those words. Nothing mysterious, nothing extraordinary - just men of God bringing God's Message, just as we might have today, with a pastor preparing his Lord's Day message, soaked in prayer & concern.
Now in the 21st Century, how should we understand those messages? Is it incorrect that we should desire to learn of the background of those accounts in the Bible? Or should we treat, for example, Nebuchadnezzar or Babylon as unimportant, & just seek to gain some deep spiritual insight & particularly find it in the NT to inspire us? I'm sorry, this type of reading & interpretation can only lead to greater error & further away from the Truth when the reason for the writing & its actual message is not taken literally & applied correctly. The NT writers knew this & if they found some deeper meaning, they never let on to their readers, nor to us.
Thanks David 0920 for your detailed explanation of your understanding. I wasn't quite sure of it from your initial & subsequent posts, therefore my continuing to pursue it so as to be sure.
Okay, now that I understand you, I can appreciate why you would find disagreement with my belief on correct biblical hermeneutics. First to your questions. Since you enquired of me those questions, I thought to myself, well how could you find answers to them yourself? Just as I cannot find any biblical instruction 'not to do any of those things you suggested', so to, I don't believe there's any instruction to do so. The reason we can find Scriptural support & understanding in the NT, is because those who know the Word can see the connections.
There are many things that we read in the OT that we can see fulfilled in the NT. You've suggested the sacrificial system & ceremonial laws; the account of Ruth, Esther & Job; and others. We can even see the Apostle Paul finding connection with Hagar of the OT to the NT (i.e. concerning the Law, Hagar was the bondwoman, representing the Covenant made at Mt. Sinai & bringing the Israelites into bondage to the Law). But the freewoman (Sarah) - the heavenly Jerusalem, was given by promise, that which gives us freedom from the bondage to the Law & liberty now in Christ ( Galatians 4:21-31)). Here, Paul gives us the correct way of reading, interpreting & applying these OT events to the NT Church. He saw that Ishmael's birth was according to the flesh ( Galatians 4:23), i.e. Abraham not holding onto God's Promise that one "that shall come forth out of thine own bowels shall be thine heir" ( Genesis 15:4); but Isaac's birth was according to God's Promise.
The only references I can think of that the Church can appoint as assistants, are found in Acts 6:1-6, where the apostles felt that their ministry was being diverted from the Word of God to looking after the physical needs of others (such as to the widows needing help). And the other mention of this type of ministry, which comes under the umbrella of 'deacon', or a part of the office of the 'diaconate', is found in 1 Timothy 3:8-13, concerning the character & Christian witness of those men so employed.
c. Matthew 24:29:31 does indeed show Jesus coming in the clouds as does 1 Thessalonians 4:16,17, but the difference is that in the Matthew verses, His descent is ultimately to come onto the Earth (His 2nd Coming) to gather His Elect to reign on Earth, but the 1 Thessalonian verses show the Church rising into the clouds to be with Christ, & not on the Earth. I guess that is why it is referred to as a 'harpazo', a snatching away of His Church, who is to be shielded from God's Wrath (Tribulation) falling on them. In His 2nd Coming, there is no 'harpazo', just a gathering together of the Elect. Revelation 19:11-21 speaks of what appears to be, Armageddon. This is Christ's 2nd Coming, for war, for collection of the Elect & the Marriage Supper on Earth. So yes, the Matthew 24 & Revelation 19 passages appear to be the same event, though the former speaks of His Coming & the latter giving more detail to His Person & that great final War.
Thanks again Jimbob, this discussion has been very fruitful & to also learn that a 'post-tribulation rapture' can actually apply to a 'post-trib/pre-Wrath' understanding (which is yours). I've always, maybe mistakenly, understood that the post-trib position required believers to not only experience the anti-Christ's reign of terror on them but also the full extent of God's tribulations/Wrath before they are gathered together for the Millennium rule of Christ. Hence my thought that yours was more a mid-trib one, or at least somewhere within the last three & half years of Daniel's last week of seven years. Blessings.
b. Verses to show that God's Wrath is included in the (Great) Tribulation: I gave some in my last comment; but from Revelation chapters 6 to chapter 18 we read of the various Judgements of God (Seal, Trumpet, Bowl) & events during that time. I realize that some have attempted to place some of the earlier judgements into our present timeframe, but I won't go into that here. As well, 2 Thessalonians 2:6-9 speaks about the 'restrainer' who keeps the anti-Christ from appearing. If the Restrainer is God's Spirit as I hold to (or, as you believe, the two witnesses, & we can discuss this further), then this act of the restrainer's revelation assumes that God has commenced Earth's countdown, by now giving Satan, the anti-Christ & his side-kick, free reign on the Earth, when once the Spirit withheld Satan from having his full control over men. The Church, believers, their prayers, the Gospel's Power, & more, are Truths of the Presence & Working of the Holy Spirit. Then comes a sudden removal to allow anti-Christ (Satan incarnate) to gain full control. Therefore, I see that God's Wrath is already manifested by this act alone, which of course culminates in the final outpouring of His Wrath ( Matthew 24:29 cf Revelation 15 & 16). So, I do agree with you concerning the outpouring of God's Wrath in those last days of the Great Tribulation, but I see that it will have already begun when God determined to remove His Restrainer.
I agree Jimbob, our early Church teaching would normally have great influence on what we believe today (I first went to a Fellowship that preached almost weekly on Christ's coming/rapture, & the Pastor often said of himself, 'I won't see death because the Lord's coming is so near'). And we believed him & waited patiently for the Lord Jesus. He left this Earth over thirty years ago & still no rapture, so clearly his hope was certain but his assessment of the world's events & God's Timing were incorrect. So there's error to be noted. I believe that when I was saved much later in October 1979 (in my mid-20s), & then had a yearning to apply myself wholly to the reading & study of God's Word (even leaving paid employment to do this for six months), I had to also 'attempt' to cancel out what I was taught, but learn Truths from the Bible itself & then re-introduce those earlier teachings if I could now see them clearly in the Word. So, what I've written earlier to you in support of my belief is largely from the Scriptures I've considered & not from earlier exposure to this doctrine (in fact, some of these Scriptures weren't even addressed, if I remember correctly).
So, to your three questions:
a. I don't see Revelation 14:14-16 ("harvesting") as that of the Church's rapture. 'Jesus thrust in His sickle & the earth was reaped'. Then two angels appear (one with a sickle, the other having "power over fire"). Clearly, these angels were engaged with gathering the "clusters of the vine of the earth" to be cast into the "winepress of the wrath of God" (this might allude to the battle at Megiddo). So what happened when Jesus cast in His sickle? When the earth was "reaped", what took place? The possible answer is in Revelation 14:13, "Blessed are the dead which die in the Lord from henceforth..." (from henceforth). This is not the Church, but those who are martyred under & following (henceforth) from the beast's reign. I don't see a rapture in this passage.
If we assume that most people on here mean well and wish to speak about what they know to be true then we can be open to listening. If we do not agree with what someone says, we can respond back or just let it go. Being prayerful is key in discerning if and how to respond. This site is a learning place for us. We learn about the Scriptures and God who inspired them. We learn from and about others. We also learn for and about ourselves as we consider the views of others. I try not to read too much into what somewhat writes, but wish to take posts at face value and believe that the person is being upfront and honest about what they think. I try to speak to what someone has stated and not to what I think is someone's motives or evaluate someone's spiritual walk. I pray for those I interact with on here and especially for the prayer requests of others.
I have enjoyed your' and Chris' discussion and this is not to say I know anything and hope you don't mind. Just another understanding for study. I will only address one thing, being taken to heaven. I believe you and Chris agree on, just at different times.
I love this site and the people on it. The end times: we have been told to endure unto the end and for many of us living today that will be our death before Jesus returns, and how things unveil will not affect us, we will be asleep. What if we are still here when the end starts what are we looking for? Some things have not been revealed, so we must be ready to face anything by standing strong in our faith.
We must with an open mind study with prayer. Like the first thing Jesus said to His disciples on Mount Olive when they asked Him about the temple being destroyed. "Take heed that no man deceive you."
If we are still living when the end starts, what if it is different than what we are looking for? Are the last members of the Church more worthy to be spared than the first members of the Church? Millions of believers have been killed for their faith, by Jews, Romans, other nations, by the Roman Church, and if you read history, they continued the death penalty for what they considered heresy after the reformation, and today they are still being killed for their faith.
In 1 Thess. 4 where the understanding of the rapture of the Church and are taken to heaven. In 1 Thess. 4 the people were concerned the believers who had died will not be resurrected and be part of the kingdom because the ones living would prevent that. Paul's answer in 1 Thess. 4:15-18 was to comfort them that would not happen. It says and so shall we ever be with the Lord. Where in these verses, does it say after we meet Jesus in the air we go to heaven? No bible verse I have found, in the Old or New, says we go or are taken to heaven after the resurrection.
Where is the destination of the gathering?
God bless,
RLW
We who have received the Holy Ghost know and watch out. After all, we go as slaughter victims every day. Many are tormented and bound, and even killed for their faith.
That's what I'm saying, we have the law in our hearts now. Not on stone boards.
Some have not experienced this unfortunately.
Jesus says in Matthew 15:1-20 iv got this today. Dear friend sometime its difficult to wrigt some words. And believe that everyone understands what one means, my fault. Please forgive me Also for the long wait for answers. Have been a bit busy. God bless us all in Jesus holy name, love u in Christ.
And let's all put Lord Jesus first of all, Amen
Thx Alex 1900. Goodly word of the Holy Spirit. Love you in Christ.
Matthew 15
God loves us more than any other ever could.
When God's favor over one's life to is absent or is diminished, then we must "strengthen those [points of character] which are as though dying away' [see Letters to
The Churches Rev. 3]
till Jesus can testify that He finds our works to be perfect
from a divine perspective.
Selfish pride is very destructive; through humility we practice mutual Edification as a church.
To become free from sin, self and the world, let us turn our minds and hearts to Him Who gave Himself for us and rose again.
The Lord "opens their ears in affliction" (quote from Job) as depicted in first chapter of Joel
and then we're prepared to be longsuffering, courteous.
Selfishness is not beneficial to the testimony of Christianity.
So as God does a thorough cleansing work in order to purify us as His people, may we remain fervent in love to God and to the brotherhood of Christ
fruit of knowledge of the fruit ADAM AND EVE DID EAT
Thank you.
Part 3
So allow me to ask some specific questions, if I may.
Where in the Bible do you find the instruction that we are not to go beyond the a LITERAL account to find the underlying Gospel message?
Where do you find the scriptural instruction not to look for the Gospel message in the very LITERAL ceremonial Laws that the the Nation of Israel was commanded to obey?
Where do you find the scriptural instruction not to look for the Gospel message in the very LITERAL account of the Book of Ruth or Ester or Job
Where do you find the scriptural instruction not to look for the Gospel message in the very LITERAL accounts of the raising of Lazarus from the dead and the other miracles that Jesus performed?
Where do you find the scriptural instruction not to look for the Gospel message in the very LITERAL account of 1 Kings 18?
If this is to be our Hermeneutic, we need to have a scriptural basis, don't you think?
..When Jesus said my words are spirit and life implies the carnal man cannot receive it...He can only receive the letter a killer a literal meaning which is death as Most All of Churchanity is dead.....They delight in dollars and materialistic things....Simply b/c they are carnally minded....And the spiritual things are foolishness to the carnally minded....1 st Cor.2:14....For the carnal man receives not the things of the spirit for they are foolishness....But how many Churches are teaching we must take the bible literal....They don't realize that Jesus says my words are spirit and life....Satan is now standing in the holy places when you think the bible is all literal....And Jesus says to run to the mountains when you see this great abomination of desolation standing in the holy places..But God is gonna pour out of his spirit on all flesh...amen GB.
Part 2
To continue a bit.
The historical-grammatical view is why some believe that the Old Testament is primarily for the Jews and the
New Testament is primarily for us today. So we should pay more attention to the New Testament than the Old. That is not taught in the Bible.
Also the Red Letter additions of the Bible are implying that the words the Jesus spoke are somehow more important, more the word of God, than the rest of the Bible. Nothing could be further from the truth.
And that God has a special salvation plan for the nation of Israel, for those of Jewish descent, than for other nationalities. That is not taught in the Bible.
The Bible alone and in its entirety is the word of God and is for us today.
What you expressed is pretty much what I expected. And I disagree with much of what you said as I'm sure you have gathered from my posts on the subject.
I do not find any declaration in scripture that supports the historical-grammatical hermeneutic. Although this is the approach that the New Testament churches have used for most of the Church Age as I understand.
This approach tries to determine what was in the mind of Paul or Luke or Isaiah or Jonah and what they were trying to express to their specific audience and culture. It unfortunately pushes to the side the fact that the Bible has ONE AUTHOR and that is God Himself. That Christ IS the WORD OF GOD. Every word and phrase in the Bible, in the original autographs, was chosen specifically by God Himself; not by the human scribe. And our goal is to discover what God Himself is teaching us; not Paul or Jeremiah or Luke. And we can and should be looking for how God used a word or a phrase in, for example, Jeremiah to understand a passage in Romans.
It also does not recognize that Christ spoke in parables and that WITHOUT A PARABLE SPOKE HE NOT. And this is not limited to those passages where He specifically declares that a passage is a parable. And that God speaks in parables to both REVEAL and HIDE truth. See the passages I have quoted previously.
So ultimately this is why God commands us to "compare scripture with scripture" to understand what God is teaching in a particular passage. And this includes both the IMMEDIATE context and the context of the ENTIRE Bible.
The Bible ALONE and it's ENTIRETY is the WORD OF GOD.
Even the Revelation 14:14-16 passage you quoted, referring to the harvest being the Church; if this is the Rapture, why then did the Church have to experience the previous judgements of God (in Revelation 6:1-17: Seal Judgements; Revelation 8:1-9:21: Trumpet Judgements). These can't be the ordinary, everyday turmoils that Earth's inhabitants face, but specific Judgements from God and then the sickle is struck for the harvesting (& of course, some are cast into the winepress of God's Wrath).
So brother, I don't want to continually rehash the earlier passages we've written about, as clearly we read these prophetical messages differently. My understanding is that the Great Tribulation of seven years (the last week seen in Daniel's prophecy), which includes God's Wrath in its various phases & intensities, will come after the Church is removed; even as promised to the Philadelphian Church in Revelation 3:10.
The anti-Christ (at least at the beginning of his reign of terror to his opponents), & the beginning of God's Judgements ( Revelation 6,8,9), assure our hearts that the Rapture of the Church can happen suddenly, without any signs to prepare for that day. The call is for our expectant joyous living & readiness now, as even the early Church was to urged to expect ( Philippians 4:5; 1 Thessalonians 5:6; Titus 2:13; James 5:8; Revelation 1:3) - not for our awakening when things begin to get very difficult in the course of the final seven years. The call was always for believers' readiness - we couldn't be in such a state if we know that much more needs to happen before the Lord's Coming/Rapture of the Church - death might overtake most of us before then.