Please explain to me why some verses and parts of verses are in parentheses.
I am doing a study on the corrupt modern bible versions that might convey man's words as God's word by copying the words in parentheses in the KJV.
I know that it is said that the KJ interpreters added or included a thought within a thought of scripture and put it within parentheses, noting that in was their own thoughts and to be transparent to the reader, as it was also with the italics added in a verse to convey clarity.
It appears that the brackets are used later revision rather than using the translators Italics of 1611.
So, it would be one or the other throughout the whole book that we each have, not a mixture of both.
Here is an example of whole verses in parentheses:
From the Textus Receptus (Stephanus 1550)
(As you can see, I could not post the Greek text)
2 Corinthians 6:2
Then I had to translate with Google translate, because I don't read Greek.
6:2 For he says, "In a time of acceptance I have heard you, and in a day of salvation I have helped you. Behold, now is the accepted time; behold, now is the day of salvation."
As you can see this is the verse from Greek into English, however the wording is slightly different from the KJV.
Why would this verse and many such verses be in parentheses?
Confidence in God's word is important to me and it would benefit many people to know what is the truth in our translations
I've been following this discussion Steve421, and though I have nothing substantial to offer, my own understanding as I read my KJB is: when a word is given in Italics, that word is not in the original manuscripts, but added by the translators to give the sentence/verse meaning in English. One can still assume a meaning without the italicized words, but the translators probably wanted to ensure that the reader was understanding the verse as they themselves did, and not applying our own meaning.
Where a verse (or part thereof) is in parenthesis, again, I don't believe that was ever used in the original language. Therefore, I simply understand their use as given by the translators (in whichever KJB edition that was done), to indicate their belief that the verse in question was deemed as being complementary to the subject matter being dealt with. We see this in John 1:14, John 4:2, Romans 3:8, Ephesians 4:9.10, and others. So, the "thought within a thought" understanding could be seen in these examples, where the parenthesized portions are clearly in the original, but brackets later applied by the translators to give us understanding of what they themselves were reading & working through. So whether brackets are applied or not, it should not make one iota of a difference to the accuracy of the texts, as all of it forms the Word of God. Only the italicized words are the 'extras' that could be read with some care, if one chooses to do so for textual examination purposes.
I suppose these men should take heed, but, if you don't know God then why would they care. The LORD our God had said three times, not add to the word that I command you nor shall you diminish from it.
Deuteronomy 4:2Proverbs 30:6Revelation 22:18
So thank you all who have participated in this discussion. It has somewhat answered my original question of the use of parentheses in our KJV.
My conclusion thus far is that the parentheses were added into the translation to somewhat denote as a commentary by the translators that this section of scripture that was written by the original author is merely a thought added to the original thought.
And in another case; maybe that some of the original words were not Holy Spirit inspired such as in Romans 3:5.
I was so blessed to have chosen the KJV to read when I wanted to know the truth. It was after reading this Holy Scripture that I was completely convinced of our Lord and Saviour Christ Jesus.
And in my study, so far, to compare the KJV and the modern bibles, it is apparent that so much, faithfully, spiritually, and hope and love is lost in the modern bibles. Today it is extremely difficult to find a church that uses the KJV.
We want to save Mormons, JW's and Muslims, I think we need to save modern bible users as well from their lack of understanding.
Again thank you all who participated in this discussion, as we worship in spirit and in truth.
Thank you Steve421 for your well-studied and gracious response. I think this short discussion has helped us to focus a little more on what we often overlook or take for granted in the Word. But as we read God's Word, we ought to take great care in every word given to us, even as Isaiah reminds us in Isaiah 66:5: "Hear the word of the LORD, ye that tremble at his word..". May we never read or even use God's Word in a light-hearted whimsical manner, but in all seriousness & alertness, listening out for the Spirit of God's Voice applying HIS Message to our hearts & lives. Every blessing brother - I look forward to reading more of what our LORD places on your heart to share.
I have read other comments of yours and you do have a lot to offer on most subjects, God bless you if the Father has revealed things to you.
On punctuation in our bibles:
As you probably know, there were no punctuation marks of any sort in the original sources, at least not in the majority text. And this subject began as a question of parentheses in the KJV and now italics and brackets have been added.
The King James translators were commissioned to translate the original sources into a word for word English text. Very difficult to translate any language into another. So, they had to adjust, but were completely transparent in doing so.
In my study, italics were first introduced in the original 1611 KJV and explained as words added to the text by the translators to be transparent to the reader that these words were not in the original sources.
In some more modern KJV's, italics were changed to the normal font used in the script and put in brackets [ ].
Parentheses are a completely different topic as far as punctuation. I believe parentheses were introduced into the 1769 KJV and was explained that this was to indicate a thought within a thought of the original author. A good example of this would be Apostle Paul saying (I speak as a man) in Romans 3:5. Would this be part of scripture that is not inspired?
Howbeit, this is a good conversation even to my study to show the perverseness and corruption of the modern bibles, and there are many. The modern bibles do not use italics or brackets but do use the parentheses that are found on the KJV. Interesting, how these men of modern bibles can use the KJV as the standard, (although they will tell you that, either they are just updating the English language or using the older critical text,) but to use parentheses in all the same places shows they are using the KJV as the standard and then change, remove or add their own words. Very dangerous indeed.
Hello sir, from your words it sounds like you already decided what you believe before you look into it. You say interpreters added their own thoughts in italics and I wonder where does such an assumption come from? Sometimes articles like "the" or "a" are needed to complete the translation and they indicate that with brackets or italics. The fact that its being presented in the first place shows more transparency. Other Bibles don't indicate that. There is no word-for-word language translation, you end up missing words and would be incomplete and grammatically incorrect sentences. You can even do a Google Translate of basic words and you might input 4 words and get 3 words back, or vice versa. It doesn't mean there's a grand conspiracy to deceive you and it doesn't mean the devil is behind it. I would suggest studying any foreign language and you will learn more about how translations occur. I looked at the FAQ and saw this below. You can see in the examples "that" was used to complete the translation which is just following English rules, or "it was". I don't think the devil is behind a big conspiracy to make it grammatically correct and clear to readers. The fact that the translators were this transparent shows how careful and forthcoming they were. Also, all of this can be checked anytime against the original Greek/Hebrew so its not like anyone is able to get away with sneaking extra words in.
Q: What do the words in italics or [brackets] mean?
A: These are words the translators added from the Hebrew and Greek to make the English complete. It is also seen in italics in some Bibles.
Examples:
Genesis 1:10
And God called the dry [land] Earth; and the gathering together of
the waters called he Seas: and God saw that [it was] good.
Proverbs 30:11
[There is] a generation [that] curseth their father, and doth not bless
their mother.
Romans 6:5
For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his death, we shall
Also, I am not thinking anything nefarious or evil here. The King James Bible is a very special book and is the preserved perfect word of GOD.
Psalm 12:6 The words of the Lord are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.
However, let me be more precise and articulate in my quest for an answer to why are parentheses are in the KJV.
Italics and parentheses are two different things.
The examples that you provided, are in brackets, and in my KJV, they are in Italics;
So far, my study on this topic... Italics were first used in the original printing in 1611 AD by the translators to indicate words that were not in the original sources. But parentheses were not used.
I think by the final edition of the KJV in 1769 were parentheses used.
However, whole verses are in parentheses where the verse IS in the original sources.
Hi, you can ask around but I think italics and brackets are the same, just presentation style. I've never seen a Bible that has both, have you? Your mention of an entire verse in parenthesis- this is a different from brackets- which verse? If you research I'm sure you'll find a different explanation for that.
I am doing a study on the corrupt modern bible versions that might convey man's words as God's word by copying the words in parentheses in the KJV.
I know that it is said that the KJ interpreters added or included a thought within a thought of scripture and put it within parentheses, noting that in was their own thoughts and to be transparent to the reader, as it was also with the italics added in a verse to convey clarity.
It appears that the brackets are used later revision rather than using the translators Italics of 1611.
So, it would be one or the other throughout the whole book that we each have, not a mixture of both.
Here is an example of whole verses in parentheses:
From the Textus Receptus (Stephanus 1550)
(As you can see, I could not post the Greek text)
2 Corinthians 6:2
Then I had to translate with Google translate, because I don't read Greek.
6:2 For he says, "In a time of acceptance I have heard you, and in a day of salvation I have helped you. Behold, now is the accepted time; behold, now is the day of salvation."
As you can see this is the verse from Greek into English, however the wording is slightly different from the KJV.
Why would this verse and many such verses be in parentheses?
Confidence in God's word is important to me and it would benefit many people to know what is the truth in our translations
Grace and peace to all,
Where a verse (or part thereof) is in parenthesis, again, I don't believe that was ever used in the original language. Therefore, I simply understand their use as given by the translators (in whichever KJB edition that was done), to indicate their belief that the verse in question was deemed as being complementary to the subject matter being dealt with. We see this in John 1:14, John 4:2, Romans 3:8, Ephesians 4:9.10, and others. So, the "thought within a thought" understanding could be seen in these examples, where the parenthesized portions are clearly in the original, but brackets later applied by the translators to give us understanding of what they themselves were reading & working through. So whether brackets are applied or not, it should not make one iota of a difference to the accuracy of the texts, as all of it forms the Word of God. Only the italicized words are the 'extras' that could be read with some care, if one chooses to do so for textual examination purposes.
Deuteronomy 4:2 Proverbs 30:6 Revelation 22:18
So thank you all who have participated in this discussion. It has somewhat answered my original question of the use of parentheses in our KJV.
My conclusion thus far is that the parentheses were added into the translation to somewhat denote as a commentary by the translators that this section of scripture that was written by the original author is merely a thought added to the original thought.
And in another case; maybe that some of the original words were not Holy Spirit inspired such as in Romans 3:5.
I was so blessed to have chosen the KJV to read when I wanted to know the truth. It was after reading this Holy Scripture that I was completely convinced of our Lord and Saviour Christ Jesus.
And in my study, so far, to compare the KJV and the modern bibles, it is apparent that so much, faithfully, spiritually, and hope and love is lost in the modern bibles. Today it is extremely difficult to find a church that uses the KJV.
We want to save Mormons, JW's and Muslims, I think we need to save modern bible users as well from their lack of understanding.
Again thank you all who participated in this discussion, as we worship in spirit and in truth.
I have read other comments of yours and you do have a lot to offer on most subjects, God bless you if the Father has revealed things to you.
On punctuation in our bibles:
As you probably know, there were no punctuation marks of any sort in the original sources, at least not in the majority text. And this subject began as a question of parentheses in the KJV and now italics and brackets have been added.
The King James translators were commissioned to translate the original sources into a word for word English text. Very difficult to translate any language into another. So, they had to adjust, but were completely transparent in doing so.
In my study, italics were first introduced in the original 1611 KJV and explained as words added to the text by the translators to be transparent to the reader that these words were not in the original sources.
In some more modern KJV's, italics were changed to the normal font used in the script and put in brackets [ ].
Parentheses are a completely different topic as far as punctuation. I believe parentheses were introduced into the 1769 KJV and was explained that this was to indicate a thought within a thought of the original author. A good example of this would be Apostle Paul saying (I speak as a man) in Romans 3:5. Would this be part of scripture that is not inspired?
Howbeit, this is a good conversation even to my study to show the perverseness and corruption of the modern bibles, and there are many. The modern bibles do not use italics or brackets but do use the parentheses that are found on the KJV. Interesting, how these men of modern bibles can use the KJV as the standard, (although they will tell you that, either they are just updating the English language or using the older critical text,) but to use parentheses in all the same places shows they are using the KJV as the standard and then change, remove or add their own words. Very dangerous indeed.
1. A Lamp In The Dark
2. Tares Among The Wheat
3. Bridges To Babylon
You should be able to find them on Youtube. The research done on the subject is extensive and a real eye opener.
Thank you for taking the time to respond to my post concerning parentheses in the King James Version.
The video suggestions were indeed intriguing, however, it did not reveal the answer to my question;
"Why are there parentheses in the KJV?"
Also, it was suggested to look in the FAQ of this site, Howbeit, the answer is not there.
So, If someone could please give a simple answer with some kind of verification, it would be much appreciated.
God bless as we worship in spirit and the truth.
Q: What do the words in italics or [brackets] mean?
A: These are words the translators added from the Hebrew and Greek to make the English complete. It is also seen in italics in some Bibles.
Examples:
Genesis 1:10
And God called the dry [land] Earth; and the gathering together of
the waters called he Seas: and God saw that [it was] good.
Proverbs 30:11
[There is] a generation [that] curseth their father, and doth not bless
their mother.
Romans 6:5
For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his death, we shall
be also [in the likeness] of [his] resurrection:
I appreciate your input;
Also, I am not thinking anything nefarious or evil here. The King James Bible is a very special book and is the preserved perfect word of GOD.
Psalm 12:6 The words of the Lord are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.
However, let me be more precise and articulate in my quest for an answer to why are parentheses are in the KJV.
Italics and parentheses are two different things.
The examples that you provided, are in brackets, and in my KJV, they are in Italics;
So far, my study on this topic... Italics were first used in the original printing in 1611 AD by the translators to indicate words that were not in the original sources. But parentheses were not used.
I think by the final edition of the KJV in 1769 were parentheses used.
However, whole verses are in parentheses where the verse IS in the original sources.
So my question is...why the parentheses?
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