concerning in the 1611 edition in this verse signified by the "spirit"
while in the 1769 is "Spirit"
is this a part of standardizing?
i believe with out a doubt this is the Spirit of God that did signify and guide them into all the truth( john 16:13)some in the old testament like zechariah 4:6 is no doubt that it is the Holy Spirit...which in those times the person of the Holy Spirit is silent.
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while in the 1769 is "Spirit"
is this a part of standardizing?
i believe with out a doubt this is the Spirit of God that did signify and guide them into all the truth( john 16:13)some in the old testament like zechariah 4:6 is no doubt that it is the Holy Spirit...which in those times the person of the Holy Spirit is silent.
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