What I am asking is why does Jesus say if I be lifted up I will draw all men unto me in one place and in another place he says that it is the Father that draws men to him? That is what I meant by asking why the difference. I was asking Alex but maybe you might know. If you can explain this it would be much appreciated.
Draw plz forgive me i didn't see your question about Jesus Drawing all men unto him...Sorry...The New Covenant is about God drawing all men unto himself...As Isaiah 65 : 1.. Says I was found of them that sought me NOT And i was made manifest unto them that asked NOT after me Isaiah 65 ...Here we see folks being drawn unto God without mans help...Which is the New Covenant...I will KNOW them ALL from the least to the greatest...Buts its Jesus who wrote this New Covenant (THE BOOK) with his OWN BLOOD..Thus the Father and his son work together in DRAWING ALL MEN UNTO HIM... Rev. 7 : 17 The Father and the son lead them together to the Kingdom and fountains of living water.
....Now some folks will tell ya that this Isaiah 65 is only to the Gentiles...But that is not true...When he spoke the new Covenant he was addressing the house of Israel and the house of Judah...As in Jeremiah 31 : 31...The Gentiles come in by their Father Abraham when he was yet uncircumcised he received the Promise...But Abraham was also the Father of the circumcision( Israel ) so this New Covenant is for everybody....As God so loved the world etc...Thats y Jesus is saying if I be lifted up I will draw ALL men unto me...Thats y Isaiah is saying i was found of them that sought me Not...I was MADE MANIFEST UNTO THEM THAT ASKED NOT AFTER ME....Its Jesus and his father that is gona DRAW ALL men unto themselves...The H.G. is our new heart and new spirit the Kingdom...The Children of Promise...Actually Abraham was a Syrian according to Duet 26 : 5..Our father a Syrian etc
What I am asking is why does Jesus say if I be lifted up I will draw all men unto me in one place and in another place he says that it is the Father that draws men to him? That is what I meant by asking why the difference. I was asking Alex but maybe you might know. If you can explain this it would be much appreciated.
....Now some folks will tell ya that this Isaiah 65 is only to the Gentiles...But that is not true...When he spoke the new Covenant he was addressing the house of Israel and the house of Judah...As in Jeremiah 31 : 31...The Gentiles come in by their Father Abraham when he was yet uncircumcised he received the Promise...But Abraham was also the Father of the circumcision( Israel ) so this New Covenant is for everybody....As God so loved the world etc...Thats y Jesus is saying if I be lifted up I will draw ALL men unto me...Thats y Isaiah is saying i was found of them that sought me Not...I was MADE MANIFEST UNTO THEM THAT ASKED NOT AFTER ME....Its Jesus and his father that is gona DRAW ALL men unto themselves...The H.G. is our new heart and new spirit the Kingdom...The Children of Promise...Actually Abraham was a Syrian according to Duet 26 : 5..Our father a Syrian etc
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