in chapter 12 verse 4. where it says 'AND DELIVERED HIM TO FOUR QUATERNIONS OF SOLDIERS TO KEEP HIM;INTENDING AFTER EASTER....... ok, i know the jews and te christians at the time of Lukes writeing acts that they did not celebrate EASTER and EASTER did not exist. was this translation by the king james version of the bible useing the name EASTER because the english language didnt have a word for PECHACH or PASCHA hebrew and greek for passover. could this not lead to erronouse use of easter for passover ? Is this the only verse in the Bible where the word EASTER is used ? this could be confussing to some could it not ?
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