What was the original definition of Iewes and what year did it first appear in the bible? Also, why did the translators mistranslate the word as that is not what Pontius Pilate wrote? I feel that this is the most offensive verse in the bible because. Our Savior is the King of the Yehudim (Judeans) YeYeshua HaNazarei v Melech HaYehudim. And the word Jew was a vulgar English slang word that didn't appear till the 18th Century and Pilate was speaking of the country from which Yeshua was decent of not Jews. I have looked at it in Greek, Latin, and Hebrew. It breaks my heart to think that hated of the Hebrews so confused Christians to accept that Yeshua (Jesus) was ever King of the Jews. That is like saying he is King of the children of lies. Do you see why I find this so offensive to Our Lord and Savior? Yes I would like to understand why all the learned scholars have been unable to see their error.
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